AMD’s plans for the Radeon 7000 Series of graphics cards have taken an unexpected turn. Initial reports suggested the release of entry-level Radeon RX 7400 and 7300 GPUs, but a recent update indicates that AMD and its partners have shifted their focus to the next generation RDNA 4 architecture.
This means that the Radeon RX 7400, which was rumored to be a 150W GPU with 6GB of GDDR6 memory, and the Radeon RX 7300, a 120W GPU with 4GB of GDDR6 memory, are no longer in development. Instead, AMD’s partners, including Acer, ASUS, ASRock, Biostar, GIGABYTE, MSI, Powercolor, Sapphire, and XFX, are currently working on the Radeon RX 8000 Series, powered by RDNA 4.
While the entry-level RDNA 3 GPUs might have appealed to budget-conscious PC builders, AMD’s move to RDNA 4 signifies a commitment to a significant leap forward in performance. The new architecture is expected to deliver substantial improvements in overall performance, with early rumors suggesting performance comparable to or even exceeding the current Radeon RX 7900 XT.
Furthermore, RDNA 4 is poised to revolutionize ray-tracing capabilities. Thanks to the new architecture and dedicated hardware, AMD aims to deliver a 2-3X boost in ray-tracing performance, bringing it to the forefront of next-generation graphics technology.
AMD’s partners are already developing and testing RDNA 4-powered GPUs, hinting at a potential unveiling at CES 2025. With such significant upgrades on the horizon, it’s understandable why AMD is focusing its efforts on RDNA 4, leaving the entry-level Radeon RX 7000 GPUs behind. The future of AMD graphics looks bright, with RDNA 4 promising a new era of performance and visual fidelity.
